Journal: Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society
Volume: JETS 48:1 (Mar 2005)
Article: Eden, The Temple, And The Church's Mission In The New Creation
Author: Gregory K. Beale

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JETS 48:1 (March 2005) p. 5

Eden, The Temple, And The Church's Mission
In The New Creation

Gregory K. Beale

Gregory K. Beale, Kenneth T. Wessner Chair of Biblical Studies and professor of New Testament at Wheaton College, 501 College Avenue, Wheaton, IL 60187, delivered this presidential address at the 56th annuual meeting of the ETS on November 18, 2004 in San Antonio, TX. The original title of the presidential address was "The Use of Old Testament Prophecy in the New: Literal Fulfillment, Analogy, or Allegory?"

This address has in mind those OT references where fulfillment is being indicated, but such fulfillment does not appear on the surface to be "literal" from the perspective of the OT author. How can such fulfillment have consistent hermeneutical continuity with the original meaning in the OT, which, on the surface, appears different from the meaning?

I had planned to look at four different examples in the NT in order to address this thorny issue. The time we have now, however, will actually permit me to look at primarily one passage in depth to try to use it as a case study, which I believe sheds light on other similar difficult "OT in the NT" passages.

We are going to look at the use of the OT in Rev 21:1–22:5, where such prophetic passages as Ezek 37:27, 40–48, and Isa 54:11–12 are used. Ezekiel 40–48, for example, predicts what many would say is a literal end-time temple, yet Revelation 21 does not appear to be depicting a literal architectural temple, though this text utilizes a number of references from Ezekiel 40–48. Since Revelation 21, in the eyes of many, does not appear "literally" to interpret Ezekiel 40–48, some believe the Ezekiel prophecy is not being viewed as fulfilled there but merely being compared to the new creation; likewise, others believe that John is indicating that Ezekiel is being fulfilled, but in an allegorical or spiritualized manner. But is it possible that John is indicating that Ezekiel will be fulfilled in the new cosmos and fulfilled in a "literal" manner, so that, somehow, John has hermeneutical integrity in the way he uses Ezekiel? We could ask the same question about the prophecies from Ezekiel 37 and Isaiah 54. My belief is that John neither compares the Ezekiel prophecy to the conditions of the future new creation nor does he allegorize it, but, in ...

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