According to the Scriptures -- By: Kenneth O. Gangel
BSac 125:498 (Apr 68) p. 123
According to the Scriptures
[Kenneth O. Gangel, Academic Dean, Associate Professor of Education, Calvary Bible College, Kansas City, Missouri.]
There are basically two interpretations regarding the question of the source of 1 Corinthians 15:3b–4. One contends that the “gospel” which Paul “delivered” (paredoka) to the Corinthians had been “received” (parelabon) as a direct revelation from the Lord. Lenski voices this position when he says: “There is no indication that in vss. 3–4 Paul is reciting a fixed formula, such as is found in the Apostles’ Creed.”1 And again: “…In Galatians 1:11—2:2 Paul is at pains to prove historically that he did not receive his Gospel from men in any manner whatsoever. We prefer Paul’s own account as to the manner in which he received the Gospel to that of any present-day commentators.”2 F. W. Grosheide, writing in the New International Commentary on the New Testament, agrees: “The apostle received the gospel from Jesus himself (Gal 1:12) and delivered it to the congregations….”3 Among others sharing this view are Morris4 and Lange5 .
The direct revelation view. The basic arguments advanced by those favoring the direct revelation view are as follows: (1) A proper understanding of 2 Timothy 2:8 (kata to euaggelion) when applied to the Corinthians passage is Paul’s explicit testimony to having received the “gospel” directly from the Lord. (2) A comparison of the wording between 15:3 and 11:23 favors the concept of direct revelation although the emphatic (ego) which begins the latter passage is absent here. (3) An appeal to Galatians 1:11—2:2 in which Paul clearly states that his “gospel” was not received from man, but by direct revelation, adds weight to the argument.
BSac 125:498 (Apr 68) p. 124
Many modern scholars of New Testament studies, however, prefer a considerably different interpret...
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