Journal: Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society
Volume: JETS 63:4 (Dec 2020)
Article: Is The Two-Floggings Hypothesis A Viable Option? A Reconstruction Of The Order Of The Floggings Of Jesus
Author: David A. Croteau

JETS 63:4 (December 2020) p. 663

Is The Two-Floggings Hypothesis A Viable Option?
A Reconstruction Of The Order Of The Floggings Of Jesus

David A. Croteau

David Croteau is Professor of New Testament and Greek, Associate Dean, and Director of the Ph.D. program at Columbia Biblical Seminary of Columbia International University, 7435 Monticello Road, Columbia, SC 29203. He may be contacted at [email protected].

Abstract: The Gospels of Matthew and Mark describe Jesus’s flogging differently than Luke and John. While some scholars dismiss the two-floggings hypothesis (e.g. Raymond Brown), and some simply conclude that there were different traditions (e.g. C. H. Dodd), the two-floggings hypothesis deserves further consideration. Promoted by scholars such as F. F. Bruce, D. A. Carson, and A. N. Sherwin-White, it deserves a more detailed defense than it has received. By analyzing the historical background of Greco-Roman floggings, examining the different Greek words used by the Gospel authors, and focusing on the order of events in each Gospel, a satisfactory explanation can be given for the differences: Jesus received a light flogging in the hopes that this would satisfy his enemies; when it did not, Pilate ordered him to be crucified and he was severely flogged.

Key words: Two-floggings hypothesis, scourging, whipping, crucifixion events

The flogging of Jesus has been a point of contention regarding the historical accuracy and consistency of the Gospel accounts.1 C. H. Dodd concluded that the Gospels simply preserve “more than one tradition” regarding certain details of Jesus’s flogging, death, burial, and resurrection.2 John 19:1 says, “Then Pilate took Jesus and had him flogged severely” (NET). Why does the NET Bible include the word “severely”? Is this an accurate translation based upon the lexical meaning of the Greek word used in the verse? Is it added because of the historical brutality associated with flogging? Matthew 27:26 says, “Then he released Barabbas for them. But after he had Jesus flogged, he handed him over to be crucified” (NET). Is this describing the same flogging as in John 19:1? In comparing the floggings in Matthew/Mark versus John, Norman Young said that a “startling difference is the FG’s positioning of the scourging and the Roman soldiers’ mocking of Jesus in the midst of Pilate’s investigation of the charges against Jesus.”3 Can John’s ...